Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 01:26

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Why do liberals think same-sex marriage is alright? The Bible makes it very clear that it's not alright to be gay, why can't liberals understand that?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

What are the differences between INFJ-T and INFJ A?

You'll usually find your answer there.

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